Glossary entry (derived from question below)
Sep 30, 2002 23:53
21 yrs ago
Hebrew term
Proposed translations
+4
1 hr
Selected
I or I am
There is no present tense of the verb to be in Hebrew so "ani" means either I or I am, depending on context.
4 KudoZ points awarded for this answer.
Comment: "Graded automatically based on peer agreement. KudoZ."
3 mins
i am
muhammad
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Note added at 2002-10-01 00:00:38 (GMT)
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first person pronoun used to refer to one\'s self
e.g : I am muhammad
אני
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Note added at 2002-10-01 20:53:58 (GMT)
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sorry... snatalieg
yours IS better than mine
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Note added at 2002-10-01 00:00:38 (GMT)
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first person pronoun used to refer to one\'s self
e.g : I am muhammad
אני
--------------------------------------------------
Note added at 2002-10-01 20:53:58 (GMT)
--------------------------------------------------
sorry... snatalieg
yours IS better than mine
Peer comment(s):
agree |
snatalieg
1 hr
|
thanks
|
|
disagree |
John Kinory (X)
: Misleading, and in this context wrong. Ani = I; sometimes it IMPLIES 'I am'.
19 hrs
|
what context??
|
-2
7 hrs
Me
Ani simply means "me"
Peer comment(s):
disagree |
snatalieg
: it simply mean I or am!
4 hrs
|
When you ask in Hebrew "Me"? (Who?) the answer is Ani (Me). Me, not I am. Therefor Me is the correct answer.
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|
disagree |
John Kinory (X)
: Using 'Me' for 'I' is a common mistake in English. The correct first person word (and answer to Who?) is 'I'.
11 hrs
|
Yonni, While "I" is the correct answer to "who?" in English the answer in Hebrew is Ani - Me. Not "I".
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21 hrs
Comments
Muhammad asks me: 'What context?'
The context is the lack of context in the question, and the Hebrew syntactic conext generally. The word 'ani' translates into 'I', not into 'I am'. In some Hebrew -sentences-, the implied meaning becomes the equivalent of the English 'I am' (as explained by Snatalieg).
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I can't understand Ashi's reply to my comment. He says:
While "I" is the correct answer to "who?" in English the answer in Hebrew is Ani - Me. Not "I".
If he is saying that the correct English reply to 'Who?' is 'Me' and not 'I'; and furthermore, that 'ani' means 'me' and does NOT mean 'I', then he is wrong on both counts.
'Me' is a prepositional pronoun. It combines 'I' with 'to' or 'of' or some other direct or indirect preposition. It maps onto various Hebrew words, depending on syntactic context; e.g. 'li' (to + I: he gave it to me = hoo natan oto li), 'oti' (direct object marker + I: he hit me = hoo hika oti), and so on.
The context is the lack of context in the question, and the Hebrew syntactic conext generally. The word 'ani' translates into 'I', not into 'I am'. In some Hebrew -sentences-, the implied meaning becomes the equivalent of the English 'I am' (as explained by Snatalieg).
=======================
I can't understand Ashi's reply to my comment. He says:
While "I" is the correct answer to "who?" in English the answer in Hebrew is Ani - Me. Not "I".
If he is saying that the correct English reply to 'Who?' is 'Me' and not 'I'; and furthermore, that 'ani' means 'me' and does NOT mean 'I', then he is wrong on both counts.
'Me' is a prepositional pronoun. It combines 'I' with 'to' or 'of' or some other direct or indirect preposition. It maps onto various Hebrew words, depending on syntactic context; e.g. 'li' (to + I: he gave it to me = hoo natan oto li), 'oti' (direct object marker + I: he hit me = hoo hika oti), and so on.
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